Posted by Christoph Heger on December 02, 1997 at 14:34:24:
In Reply to: Re: Mish'al Abdullah Al-Kadhi's book posted by Mohamed Ghounem on November 12, 1997 at 16:26:28:
Hello Mohamed,
We shouldn't lose sight of the original item of this thread which is about Al-Kadhi's book and
its ridicilous statement about the Greek text of John 1.1 -- a statement which, as I learnt in
the meantime, originated from Ahmad Deedat, who hardly can be taken seriously in this
matter.
Concerning your comment:
: I enjoy helping people to the Right Path. For people who refuse and insist on defaming
Islam, I enjoy exposing them...
I surely refuse to get hoaxed and to consider Islam as the Right Path. But I am not aware to
have defamed it -- though I would not be afraid to defame things which I see as infamous.
But let us go forward in our argument!
My comment
: {What you, Mohamed, apparently don't know: Jesus surely had some command of the
Greek language, too. He grew up in a region of rather mixed population, parts of which spoke
Greek, the main medium of communication in the Eastern mediterranian of those times.}
got this reply from you:
: The Books collected into the New Testament do not constitute the utterances of Jesus nor
of his disciples. Jesus was of Jewish ancestry and so were his disciples. If any of Jesus'
utterances were to be found preserved in their original form, they could only be in the Hebrew
language.
Wrong!
Firstly, Jesus' utterances "in their original form" would not be in Hebrew, but in Aramaic, his
mother toungue. Furthermore we have to allow for the possibility or even probability that
sometimes he used Greek. (For instance: Which language do you guess may he have used
when he spoke to the Phenician women or to Pontius Pilatus? Do you believe that this
arrogant Roman officer and official of the occupational power was prepared to learn Aramaic
to speak to the subdued Jews?)
Secondly, do you expect me and should the apostles of Jesus Christ expect their audiences
to learn Aramaic in order to learn what some Jesus unknown to them said and did? Of course
the apostles and disciples translated what he said and described what he did into the world
language of those times, which was Greek.
Thirdly, the utterances of his disciples contained in the New Testament more or less all may
be in their original Greek form. Why should St. Paul write a letter to the Romans in another
language than Greek (or perhaps for the less educated Romans in Latin)? Why should St.
Peter write his letter to the Christians of his time in a language unknown to most of its
addressees? Why should St. Luke, an educated physician from Antioch, write his Gospel and
his Acts for some Timotheos in another language than Greek?
: ...But no copy of the New Testament in ancient Hebrew exists in the world. The old copies
are all in Greek.
Of course -- since there never have been such unicorns as a New Testament in ancient
Hebrew (or, as you perhaps have in mind, Aramaic). Only in the case of St. Matthew's gospel
there is a tradition and are some speculations that it used a precursor in Aramaic language,
what may be possible and would do no harm.
: Christian writers try to cover this Grave Defect by saying that in the times of Jesus the
language in general use was Greek as you do. This is impossible for more reasons than one.
: Nations do not easily give up their language. It is for them as valuable an inheritance as any
property or other possession. In Eastern Europe, there are people who for three or four
hundred years have lived under Russian rule, but their languages remain intact to this day.
: France and Spain have ruled over Morocco and Algeria for a long time. Yet the language of
these former subjected people is still Arabic. Two thousand years have passed since the time
of Jesus. Yet the Jews have not forgotten their language.
You continued to argue:
: Even today, in parts of Europe and America, Jews speak "Yiddish", a corrupt form of
ancient Hebrew. If this long lapse of time spent amongst other peoples has not destroyed the
Jewish language, then Roman rule in Palestine which had begun only about 50 years before
the advent of Jesus was not long enough for a people to forget their language.
Again wrong!
Firstly, Yiddish is no "corrupt form of ancient Hebrew". It is a form of ancient (medieval)
German with a big portion of Hebrew words.
Secondly, the Jews actually had "forgot their language" long ago: After the Babylonian exile
they used Aramaic in daily life and no more Hebrew, which was reserved for religious
matters.
Thirdly, it would be futile of you to argue against all evidence that especially the Jews in the
diaspora in the Roman empire did not speak Greek (and to some extent Latin) and that they
did not use the Greek translation of their holy books even in religious services. The Jews of
Alexandria even had a special feast to celebrate this translation, the so called Septuaginta. It
would be futile of you to deny the fact that the Jews even in Judea -- and the more in Galilee
of those times with its mixed population -- to a large extent were able to understand and
speak Greek. In the vicinity of Nazareth there was a Greek theatre!
: But there are other important considerations also to be kept in view:
: 1. Nations which attain to any importance in history do not give up
: their language, and the Jews were a very important people indeed.
Who speaks about the Jews having given up their language? They used various languages
dependent on the circumstances -- as they and other sufficient intelligent people do in our
times.
: 2. The religion of the Jews was recorded in Hebrew and for this
: reason particularly it was impossible for them to give up their
: language.
The same as above.
: 3. In the scale of civilization and refinement, the Jews did not
: regard themselves as inferior to the Romans, rather they felt
: Superior and this must have made them proud of their language
: and reluctant to give it up.
The same as above.
: 4. The Jews entertained hopes for the return of their political
: power; nations which fear the future become pessimistic and
: therefore tend to lose pride in their language. But the Jews in
: the time of Jesus were awaiting the advent of their King who
: was to re-establish Jewish rule. Looking forward to such a
: future, they could not have been so negligent in protecting
: their language.
The same as above. Only one additional remark: Do you know that even the zealots in
Masada at least occasionally used the Greek language in their commands, as we know from
archeological evidence?
: 5. Jewish authors of that time wrote in their own language or in
: some corrupt form of it. If their language had changed, we
: should have had books of the time written in a language other
: than Hebrew.
We do have such books in Greek and Aramaic written by Jewish authors. I wonder why you
don't know.
: 6. ... But in the time of Jesus, the Roman Empire had not become divided into two halves.
The center of the Empire was still Rome. The Roman and Greek languages are very
difficult. If Roman influence had at all penetrated Jewish life, it should have resulted in the
assimilation of Latin (and not Greek) words into the Hebrew language.
Whether the "Roman Language", usually called Latin, and the Greek language are difficult
depends on one's ability. For Al-Kadhi, obviously, Greek is too difficult. Your argument,
however, is not convincing. Actually, the Romans didn't mind the Greek language to be the
universal medium in the East of their empire. For some time even the educated parts of the
Roman nobility in Rome preferred Greek. On the other hand, there were some authors in the
East of the Roman empire who were fond of Latin and not of Greek.
: Yet the oldest manuscripts of the Gospels are all in Greek. This proves that the Gospels
were written down at a time when the Roman Empire had become divided and its eastern
possession had become part of the Greek Empire, so that the Greek language had begun to
exert its influence on Christianity and its literature.
This argument shows deep ignorance about the importance of the Greek language in the
Eastern mediterranian and the adjacent parts (in the states of the Diadochs and their
successors) from the time of Alexander the Great till the first centuries of the Christian era.
: 7. Phrases such as the following which are preserved in the
: Gospels in their original form are all Hebrew phrases:
: (a) "Hossana" - Matthew 21:9 (b) "Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani" - Matthew 27:46 (c)
"Rabbi" - John 3:2 (d) "Talitha cumi" - Mark 5:41
The phrase "Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani" ("My God, my God, why thou havest forsaken me?",
the words which Jesus spoke, when he died on the cross) is not Hebrew. It is the Aramaic
translation of the Hebrew "Eli, Eli, lama azabthani", a part of a psalm, which Jesus quoted
praying in his death struggle. It is a nice piece of evidence that Jesus -- contrary to you,
Mohammed, -- didn't mind translations of the Bible.
: From the Acts, it appears that even after the crucifixion Jews spoke Hebrew:
I don't understand why the Jews should have changed their language after the crucifixion.
And again: It was not Hebrew, but Aramaic.
: It is evident that at this time the language spoken in Palestine was Hebrew. Speaking any Again, it was Aramaic, and the Jews in those time weren't less intelligent than in our times : Among the names mentioned [in the snipped quote form the Acts; Ch.H.] is Rome, which The usage of Latin, of course, was not so common in Jerusalem as the use of the Greek : We are not concerned here with the merits of the narrative but we only wish to point out As I said before, it was Aramaic, and I don't understand why it should have changed after the : Those who knew other languages were exceptions. How do you know -- against all evidence? : When some of the disciples spoke these other languages - among them latin. some The text of the Acts says the opposite: people not only did understand what the disciples : If the country as a whole used Roman or Greek. no such reaction would be possible. Firstly, the passage from the Acts explicitly speaks about Jews coming from abroad. : It is clear, therefore, that the language which Jesus and his disciples spoke was Hebrew, Again, he usually spoke Aramaic, but surely he had some command of Greek und probably : So copies of the New Testament written down in Latin or Greek must have been written What do you call long? The first fragments are from before 50 AD, i.e. appromately 20 years : ...at a time when Christianity had begun to penetrate into Roman territory and Roman Who told you this nonsense of "100 or 200 years after Jesus"? The only -- till now -- unknown : It was necessary, therefore, that we should have had another book sent to us from That's beyond me. Mankind surely was and is in desperate need of a lot of things, but : {Please explain: Who accepted the Bible in English -- instead of its original languages - as I have no idea. I think nobody. : Every Western church which preaches, and asks for Prayers in English, all. Why shouldn't they preach and ask for prayers in a language a great portion of mankind is in : {In which passages and when the bible was tempered with? Show some paleographic : I was going to write out a long list for you, but instead I'll just give you this link... I visited these web-sites. And what I experienced before with other sites quoted by you, I Returning to the original item of this thread: : {Again, my argument was about the nonsense Al-Kadhi wrote about the Greek text in John: Unfortunately, you don't have to say anything concerning it. Instead you asked: : Are you a Christian Bishop, because as the link above shows, Christian Bishops, Scholars, I am no bishop. What should I have to do with them and their alledged admissions. Some are : { I appreciate your sense of humour. My personal favorite amongst the contradictions : I am amused you mention this one: : 1. The Koran gives women inheritance rights almost 1,500 years ago, they have the right to My argument was about an amusing offence against mathematics, not about wisdom or lack : { Even if the Qur'an were "scientifically and literally perfect" -- what would be proven by : That there is a book by God more accurate and reliable than the Bible. Even than the Qur'an would be second to any good monography in mathematics in terms of : { But on the contrary, it not only contains a variety of contradictions and scientific humbug } : Humbugs?, show at least 1, or do you rely on the way Brother Jochen twists the words, I already have presented you the hereditary thing. There are a lot more. May be that you can : Be careful with your allegations! By the way, chapter 13 wasn't better than the above : Since you say "Humbugs", let's look at the Bee. {Koran 16:68} "And your Lord inspired the : The imperative "build" above is the translation of the Arabic word "attakhithi", which is : Therefore the Koran is in fact saying "build, you female bees.." A swarm of bees {who Can you do me the favour and tell me what you are arguing, before I invest some time in : { a lot of linguistic faults which possibly are the traces of the Qur'an's emendation from a text : I have already answered this concern in a ... Previous Reply, the Koran is perfect. And I already have answered: Unfortunately, your contribution contained nothing pertinent to : You try to find fault in the Koran from God that ... Labels Jesus as Sinless, while the Bible It's well known to me that the Qur'an confirms that Jesus was sinless, contrary to (all?) other : The Straight Path is in front of you, follow your logic... The same applies to you. : you know what is right. Yes, indeed. Kind regards,
other language was extraordinary.
and to a good portion were able to speak various languages.
means that the Roman language was not spoken in Palestine and whoever spoke it seemed
a stranger.
language, though certainly not totally unknown.
that this passage from the Acts proves conclusively that even after the crucifixion the
language of the Jews was Hebrew.
crucifixion.
people thought they were drunk and talking nonsense.
said, but they understood it in their own languages and were astonished that they did. As
everywhere, not all inhabitants of a land are able to understand and to speak a foreign
language or to understand and speak it fluently.
Secondly, nobody said, that the country as a whole gave up to speak Aramaic and used
Greek or even Latin in daily life.
not Latin or Greek.
used it occasionally.
down long after the time of Jesus,...
after the crucifixion of Jesus. By the way, do you have some idea about the age of the oldest
manuscripts or fragments of the Qur'an?
imperialist power had become divided into the Italian and Greek Parts. Books of this kind,
composed 100 or 200 years after Jesus by unknown authors and attributed by them to Jesus
and his disciples, can be of little use to any believer today.
author is the author of the letter to the Hebrews. I think the scholars have some guess about
him, and we may be hopeful that further research will reveal his name to those who are
interested in such matters.
heaven, free from these defects and one which readers could regard with certainty as the
very Word of God.
certainly not in the first run of books, especially not of boring ones. What gave you the idea to
assert that the Qur'an was sent from heaven? Because you can read such a claim in it? It is
free from defects? O dear! That's a very special item, too special for this posting, which
already is long enough. Only this: Please read again my contributions to the thread "What is
the Language of the Qur'an" on this webboard! It has become clear that at least parts of the
Qur'an originally were not written down in Classical Arabic, in which it alledgedly was
revealed, but in an Arabic vernacular. At least those parts have been reshaped to let them
look like Classical Arabic. And so on..., but I have to stop now.
word of God? }
command of? What's your point?
evidence!}
experienced again: The first site wasn't relevant at all, and the second presents such a crude
mixture of intelligent and unintelligent stuff, that you cannot expect me to waste my time on it.
Please present your arguments yourself and not by pointing to such stuff.
1:1-2. In the meantime I learnt that Al-Kadhi got this nonsense from Ahmad Deedat. That's
explanation enough.}
and Priests admitting to the faults, but I guess you know more.
right and some are not.
Jochen displayed in the Qur'an is the mathematics of Qur'anic hereditary rules, where the
portions sometimes add up to more than 100 percent.}
inherit property and wealth, God gave this rule centuries before the West adopted it alittle
less than a 100 years ago, maybe because the ... Bible claims only men get to inherit, not
women.
of wisdom of Islamic hereditary law in general, which doesn't faze me. Jochen Katz is right: it
just doesn't add up. And the lengthy quote you presented is unable to obscure this simple
fact.
that?}
accurateness and reliability. I only have to declare that it fell down from heaven.
visit them in Jochen Katz'web site.
Koran to be from God, our Brother Jochen has proven he is willing to lie for his pride, despite
God.
mentioned chapter 2.1.
Bee, build your dwellings in hills, on trees, and in {human's} habitations."
feminine form {Arabic unlike English, differentiates between the sexes} The feminine form is
used when all of those it refers to are female, whereas the masculine is used when a group
consists of at least 1 male.
collect honey and build the hive}, are female only, thus the phrasing of this command is in
agreement with the Fact that male bees do not partake in the construction of the hive.
scrutinizing this nice piece of prose?
in the Arabic vernacular to a text in Classical Arabic.}
the item of the primordial language of the Qur'an.
Labels Jesus as a Sinner
prophets. But in the Bible, too, Jesus is sinless. In the Old Testament the announced
Messiah is sinless, and in the New Testament Jesus Christ himself declares that nobody is
able to blame him for any sin.
Christoph Heger