Dear Sir,
I have a question regarding the quote below which I found on the following site: http://debate.org.uk/topics/socio/attract2.htm.
"Jesus Christ, speaking more than one-thousand years after the prophet Moses says: "The Lord our God, the Lord is one; and you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind, and with all your strength" (Mark 12:28-30 and Matthew 22:37). Remember that this is the man who claims to have equality with God who is speaking."
Question: Where does that man (Jesus Christ) calim to have equality with God. If he claims so in the Bible, Where? Wouldn't that contradict not knowing the final hour in Mk:13:32: "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."(KJV). Also Jn:5:30: "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me." If Jesus Christ "claims to have equality with God", why would he seek the will of the Father not his? Aren't they the same one God, having the same will?
Your response is appreciated.
Signed: Ahmed Al-Saadi
